rkamm@taxestech .
Level 2
03-09-2024
07:27 PM
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That makes sense. Thank you. Should we understand that S-Corp A and S-Corp B indirectly own 100% shares of each other through the individual shareholder? I am having a hard time understanding this logic. In the absence of the common individual shareholder, how do we understand whether the S-Corp would either benefit from/inherit the shares or fit into the voting power picture?