coralli
Level 2
08-26-2021
12:41 PM
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Why is it calculating a gain of only the difference between the purchase and sale price, when the asset was fully depreciated using Sec 179?
Example: Asset purchase price was $5700 and took section 179 and then sold a few years later for $6,000 and it is showing a $300 gain. Shouldn't the basis be zero?
Also, not showing up on F4797...
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