I'd treat the tax amount as tax expense. Any excess is dividend.

But why'd she do that? Should have made corporate estimated tax payments.

The C-corp sold a building in 2020 which generated a large capital gain. She said that she didn't like the previous accountant so I'm assuming that she took it upon herself to make her own decisions.

My thought was to take it as an expense as well. Just not sure if the IRS would see it as a dividend being that it went directly to her first.

Thanks for the quick response sjrcpa!

Optimism Reigns!!!

Agreed,

Thanks