BobKamman
Level 15

Trying to figure out how a probate court would be involved here.  My guess is that the father was PR for his mother's estate, so the deed shows him as PR of the estate deeding it to himself as beneficiary.  Then he did not deed it to the kids.  So it is still in father's estate?  Then the basis would be FMV at the time of his death, not his mother's.